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1richardbsmith
I am looking at the Isaiah section in A history of prophecy in Israel
The author, Joseph Blenkinsopp, on page 103, states that Isaiah 8.1 refers to a "symbolic act of writing and notarizing a deed handing over the territory of Damascus and Samaria to the Assyrians."
He makes this statement without explanation as if it were the plain reading of the text. I have not found anywhere any discussion of this interpretation, no mention.
Has anyone read anything about this interpretaton of 8.1?
The author, Joseph Blenkinsopp, on page 103, states that Isaiah 8.1 refers to a "symbolic act of writing and notarizing a deed handing over the territory of Damascus and Samaria to the Assyrians."
He makes this statement without explanation as if it were the plain reading of the text. I have not found anywhere any discussion of this interpretation, no mention.
Has anyone read anything about this interpretaton of 8.1?
2M0101189
I have never heard of that. God through his prophets was trying to reach Ahaz and through Isaiah's two sons, Shear-jashub (a remnant share return) and Maher-shalal-hash-baz (hasten, speedy prey) to let him know that God will take care of the enemies of His people. The Assyrians were allowed to take Damascus and Samaria v. 4 and pass through Judah v. 8, but they were not allowed to take Jerusalem. God did not permit it. I checked through a few commentaries and that is what I found. Have a great day!
3richardbsmith
Appreciate the comment. My question was probably more about on what Prof Blekinsopp is basing that interpretation. It struck me odd that the statement was made so matter of factly, without explanation, foot note, or hint that the plain reading makes no mention of a symbolic deeding of Israel and Damascus to Assyria.
It is not typical of what I have read in the book for him to take such a liberty with the text.
It is not typical of what I have read in the book for him to take such a liberty with the text.
4richardbsmith
While we are on the subject of the child's name, can anyone help with the Hebrew of
מהר שלל חש בז ?
Specifically the חש perfect following the מהר imperative. Or maybe the מהר should be treated as an infinitive?
Is the perfect here governed by the imperative so that the perfect should be translated as an imperative. Or am I just getting too literal, like all language beginners.
"Hurry plunder, the plundering (or the plunder) has hastened."
מהר שלל חש בז ?
Specifically the חש perfect following the מהר imperative. Or maybe the מהר should be treated as an infinitive?
Is the perfect here governed by the imperative so that the perfect should be translated as an imperative. Or am I just getting too literal, like all language beginners.
"Hurry plunder, the plundering (or the plunder) has hastened."
